Zoo 317: Heredity, Evolution and Society
Fall 1999
Exam I from Fall 1998
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These questions, administered in Fall 1998, covered the same material as the first exam to be given in Fall 1999. None of the questions is likely to appear on the 1999 exam. However, If you can answer all of them, you should do very well on the 1999 exam.
Reminder: Bring a to class. You will need it to turn in your exam. |
Mark the correct answer on the separate answer sheet with a #2 pencil. On the answer sheet, be sure to (1) print your name, (2) code your name, (3) enter your SSN, (4) code your SSN, (5) sign with your usual signature. There is one best answer for each question. Other answers may be partially correct but not in all circumstances. If you must erase, do so thoroughly so that the machine will not misread your intentions. Answer sheets must be turned in no later than 9:50. You may keep the exam. The answer key will be posted outside the exam room about 9:25.
1. Eugenics and genetics differ in that
a. eugenics applies only to plants.
b. eugenics deals only with behavioral traits.
c. the purpose of eugenics is to improve the genetic quality of people.
d. eugenics does not advocate interference with nature.
2. Which of the following groups contain only eukaryotes?
a. humans, daffodils, grasshoppers
b. daffodils, grasshoppers, bacteria
c. grasshoppers, bacteria, viruses
d. bacteria, viruses, humans
3. Which of the following organelles is especially important in generating energy for the cell?
a. lysosomes
b. Golgi complexes
c. nucleoli
d. mitochondria
4. Chromatin is found in
a. mitochondria.
b. the cytoskeleton.
c. nuclei.
d. the plasma membranes.
5. Ribosomes are the site of synthesis of
a. proteins.
b. ATP.
c. DNA.
d. endoplasmic reticulum.
6. In humans, a haploid set of chromosomes consists of ________ chromosomes.
7. A telocentric chromosome is one in which the centromere is
a. missing.
b. at the end.
c. in the middle.
d. autonomous.
8. Which is the proper sequence of periods of the cell (nuclear) cycle?
a. G1, G2, S, M
b. G1, G2, M, S
c. G1, M, G2, S
d. G2, M, G1, S
9. Mitosis is the form of cell replication that occurs in
a. somatic cells only.
b. germ cells only.
c. all somatic cells and some germ cells.
d. all germ cells and some somatic cells.
10. Following mitosis, the two daughter cells
a. have half their chromosomes from each parent cell.
b. are genetically identical to the parent cell.
c. have twice the chromosomes of the parent cell.
d. are a hybrid of the parental cells.
11. Metaphase is the point in the nuclear division cycle when
a. chromatids just become visible.
b. crossing over occurs.
c. cytokinesis occurs.
d. the chromosomes are maximally condensed.
12. Preparation of a karyotype involves
a. pasting photographs of chromosomes into a standard array.
b. measuring the volume of the cell nucleus.
c. measuring the time required for one cell cycle.
d. counting the number of nucleoli in a nucleus.
13. Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction?
a. in vitro fertilization
b. artificial insemination
c. cell hybridization
d. mitosis
14. Crossing over generates
a. new combinations of alleles on a chromosome.
b. chromosomes of unequal arm length.
c. chromosomes with two centromeres.
d. unequal distribution of chromosomes at anaphase.
15. The products of meiosis normally are
a. diploid.
b. polyploid.
c. haploid.
d. aneuploid.
16. Meiosis is initiated in females
a. in the zygote.
b. prior to birth.
c. at puberty.
d. throughout the reproductive period.
17. An ovum with one polar body
a. is in the prophase of meiosis I.
b. is in metaphase I.
c. has completed meiosis I.
d. is known as an oögonium.
18. Which of the following is the proper sequence of stages in spermatogenesis?
a. spermatocyte > spermatogonium > spermatozoon > spermatid
b. spermatogonium > spermatozoon > spermatid > spermatocyte
c. spermatogonium > spermatocyte > spermatid > spermatozoon
d. spermatid > spermatocyte > spermatogonium > spermatozoon
19. A monohybrid cross is defined as
a. a cross involving a single genetic locus.
b. a cross involving members of a single species.
c. a cross that generates a true-breeding F1 generation.
d. a cross in which both male and female parents are from the same true-breeding stock.
20. In leopards, presence of spots is dominant to absence (albino). The locus is autosomal. If a true-breeding spotted leopard is bred with an albino, what would be the expected phenotype of the F1 offspring?
a. small spots
b. faint spots
c. no spots
d. normal spots
21. In the above cross, what is the predicted genetic ratio of the F2 generation? [Let S represent the allele for spots and s the allele for albinism.]
a. 3 SS : 1 ss
b. 1 SS : 2 Ss : 1 ss
c. 1 SS : 3 ss
d. 1 SS : 1 Ss : 1 ss
22. At a second locus in leopards, long tail is dominant to short tail. Let the tail length alleles be represented by T (long) and t (short). The tail length and spotted loci segregate independently. If long tail, spotted leopards that are heterozygous at both loci are crossed with short tail, albino leopards, what would be the expected offspring?
a. 1 long spotted : 1 long albino : 1 short spotted : 1 short albino
b. 1 long spotted : 1 short albino
c. 2 long spotted : 1 long albino : 2 short spotted : 1 short albino
d. 9 long spotted : 3 long albino : 3 short spotted : 1 short albino
23. A Punnett square is
a. a measurement of gene density by squaring the lengths of the chromosomes.
b. a method for representing chromosomes graphically by arranging them in a square.
c. a method of plotting the results of a cross between two strains, one axis being male × female, the other axis being female × male.
d. a graphical representation of the joint occurrence of independent events.
24. A couple seeks genetic counseling because their second child has cystic fibrosis. What is the likelihood that their next child will have cystic fibrosis?
25. A genetic trait that is due to variation at an autosomal locus
a. should affect males and females equally.
b. should affect females primarily.
c. should affect males primarily.
d. is primarily transmitted from the father.
26. One characteristic of rare autosomal recessive traits is
a. skipping of generations, i.e. one generation is not affected, but both the preceding and following generations do have affected persons.
b. alternation of sexes from one generation to the next.
c. affected persons are limited to one sibship.
d. affected children tend to be the same sex as the affected parent.
27. A wild-type allele is
a. one that causes a phenotype associated with evolutionary ancestors, e.g. hairiness.
b. one that spreads rapidly in a population.
c. one that produces unpredictable phenotypes in combination with other alleles.
d. the common, normal allele(s).
28. Consanguineous matings are those that
a. involve two persons known to be heterozygous for a detrimental recessive allele.
b. involve persons from two different genetic backgrounds.
c. are capable of producing children with inherited blood disorders.
d. are between persons who are genetically related.
29. A child is diagnosed with a rare autosomal dominant trait, such as brachydactyly. One would expect to find
a. neither parent affected.
b. the mother affected.
c. the father affected.
d. either the mother or father affected.
30. A woman is diagnosed with the rare autosomal dominant trait Marfan syndrome. If she has a son, the likelihood that the child will also be affected is
a. zero.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 100%.
31. One characteristic of X-linked dominant traits is
a. twice as many females as males are affected.
b. all the sons of affected females are affected.
c. half the daughters of affected males are affected.
d. the trait appears only in females.
32. An X-linked recessive trait such as colorblindness appears much more frequently in males because
a. the colorblind allele is more frequent in males.
b. the colorblind allele is expressed in hemizygous males but only in homozygous females.
c. the trait is sex-limited.
d. colorblindness depends on high levels of male hormones.
33. Which of the following would rule out X-linked recessive inheritance for a rare trait?
a. All the daughters of an affected male transmit the trait to some of their sons.
b. All the sons of an affected male are also affected.
c. All the sons of an affected female are also affected.
d. Frequently, an affected male will have a maternal uncle who is also affected.
34. If a trait is Y-linked,
a. all the daughters of an affected male can transmit the gene to their offspring.
b. all the sons of an affected male are also affected.
c. all the children of an affected male are also affected.
d. all the children of an affected male receive the allele for the trait, but it is expressed only in males.
35. Traits are pseudoautosomal
a. if the phenotype can also be caused by environmental factors.
b. if they occur equally in males and females but in fact are not inherited.
c. if the genes that cause them are in the homologous portions of the X and Y chromosomes.
d. if the genes that cause them are in the satellite regions of the acrocentric chromosomes.
36. Which cell organelles (other than the nucleus) have their own genes?
a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. endoplasmic reticulum
37. Which of the following is characteristic of maternal inheritance?
a. All children of an affected woman are affected.
b. All daughters of an affected woman are affected.
c. All sons of an affected woman are affected.
d. All affected persons are related through their mothers.
38. In the case of maternal inheritance, the genes involved will be identical in a woman and
a. her paternal grandmother.
b. her paternal grandfather.
c. her maternal grandmother.
d. her maternal grandfather.
39. An autosomal dominant allele is described as 90% penetrant. This means that
a. it occurs in 90% of the population.
b. it is transmitted to 90% of the offspring of an affected person.
c. 90% of the affected persons die.
d. 90% of persons who have the allele express the associated phenotype.
40. Occasionally a trait is due to genotype in some persons but to environmental factors in others. The latter are called
a. genocopies.
b. phenocopies.
c. phenograms.
d. xerocopies.
41. Two loci are 10 centimorgans apart on chromosome 5. This means that
a. they are separated by 10 nanometers.
b. crossing over occurs between them 10% of the time.
c. they are 10 loci apart.
d. when the chromosomes are stained, they are 10 bands apart.
42. Specific alleles at two loci are sometimes described as coupled. This means that
a. they cause the same phenotypic effect.
b. both are required to cause a particular phenotype.
c. they are on the same chromosome.
d. crossing over cannot occur between them.
43. The term haplotype refers to
a. a combination of alleles at loci that are so close together that crossing over is rare.
b. the number of haploid chromosome complements in a cell.
c. the different chromosome complements in various tissues.
d. the genotype of a gamete.
44. Mouse/human cell hybrids are useful in genetic mapping because
a. crossing over does not occur between mouse and human chromosomes.
b. mouse chromosomes pair preferentially with homologous regions of human chromosomes.
c. human chromosomes are preferentially lost from mouse/human hybrids.
d. human genes are preferentially expressed in mouse/human hybrids.
45. The gene for Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is syntenic with X-linked colorblindness. Therefore,
a. DMD is on the X chromosome.
b. DMD is on an autosome.
c. DMD affects the same cytoplasmic organelle as X-linked colorblindness.
d. the same mutation affects both DMD and the X-linked colorblindness gene.
46. A locus that is polymorphic
a. consists of two or more genes in tandem.
b. has different forms in different tissues.
c. is often associated with polyphagia.
d. has two or more common alleles.
47. The risk of nondisjunction is highest in which of the following paternal decades?
a. Twenties.
b. Thirties.
c. Forties.
d. None of these; it is independent of paternal age.
48. One feature of Down syndrome is the high risk associated with
a. maternal smoking.
b. German measles during pregnancy.
c. use of certain drugs by the father.
d. advanced age of the mother.
49. Trisomy 21 is an example of
a. triploidy.
b. euploidy.
c. aneuploidy.
d. polyploidy.
50. Embryos that are triploid most often arise by
a. endoreduplication in the fertilized egg.
b. nondisjunction.
c. fertilization of a polar body.
d. fertilization by two sperm.
51. Amniocentesis for prenatal diagnosis is best done at
a. 6-8 weeks of gestation.
b. 8-10 weeks of gestation.
c. 14-16 weeks of gestation.
d. 22-30 weeks of gestation.
52. When part of a chromosome is deleted, abnormality may result because
a. chromosomes cannot segregate in meiosis.
b. crossing over is suppressed.
c. recessive genes in that portion of the nondeleted homologous chromosome are expressed.
d. crossing over in that region generates duplications and deficiencies.
53. Some cases of Down syndrome are caused by an unbalanced
a. translocation.
b. inversion.
c. synapsis.
d. deletion.
54. The XYY syndrome commonly arises by
a. polyploidy.
b. nondisjunction.
c. gynandromorphism.
d. misogyny.
last revision: 15 September 1999
owned by:
Dr. Eldon Sutton