Zoo 317: Heredity, Evolution and Society
Fall 1999
Exam III from Fall 1998
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These questions, administered in Fall 1998, covered the same material as the third exam to be given in Fall 1999. None of the questions is likely to appear on the 1999 exam. However, If you can answer all of them, you should do very well on the 1999 exam.
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Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet, using a #2 pencil. Some answers may be partially correct. Pick the best answer, one that is completely correct. If you must erase, do so thoroughly. Enter your name and social security number on the answer form and code them. Sign the answer sheet with your usual signature. Exams must be turned in not later than 9:50. Have your photo ID ready when you turn in your answers.
1. When a gene is "cloned," the product is in the form of
a. a mouse that has the gene incorporated into its genome.
b. a sample of DNA that consists entirely of that one gene.
c. a bacterial culture containing copies of the gene inserted into a vector.
d. a fertilized egg into which copies of the gene have been injected.
2. Restriction enzymes are valuable in studies of DNA because
a. they cleave DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.
b. they prevent degradation of DNA.
c. they restrict the entry of viruses into the cell nucleus.
d. they cleave nucleotides one at a time, necessary in DNA sequencing.
3. DNA polymerase is a tool in DNA studies, based on the fact that it
a. copies only the template strand of DNA.
b. can add nucleotides in either the 5' or 3' direction.
c. marks the replication origins on a strand of DNA.
d. extends a polynucleotide chain only in the 3' direction.
4. It is possible to make DNA copies of RNA with a viral enzyme called
a. DNA ligase.
b. RNA transferase.
c. RNA copase.
d. reverse transcriptase.
5. Many bacterial cells have infective particles in them called plasmids. Plasmids are
a. fragments of RNA derived from messenger RNA.
b. small DNA particles that are able to replicate.
c. membrane-bound organelles similar to lysosomes.
d. receptors for viruses.
6. A human genomic library is
a. a printout of the complete DNA sequence of humans.
b. a collection of DNA clones based on the entire DNA of human cells.
c. a sample of DNA that has a single gene included in it.
d. a tabulation of all the genes known in humans.
7. Which of the following could be used as a probe for the DNA sequence 5'-AGTCCTCGAAGTTTCC-3'?
a. 5'-AAACTTCGA-3'
b. 5'-TCAGGAGCT-3'
c. 5'-TTTGAAGCT-3'
d. 5'-CCTCGAAGT-3'
8. Electrophoresis of DNA separates fragments based on
a. relative amount of purines and pyrimidines.
b. the number of charged vs uncharged phosphate groups.
c. the number of nucleotides.
d. the relative amounts of double strand and single strand DNA.
9. A Southern blot is a technique for detecting
a. different kinds of RNA in a cell.
b. the variety of proteins present in a cell.
c. the presence of viruses in a cell.
d. fragments of DNA of various sizes.
10. The polymerase chain reaction is used to
a. join fragments of DNA together.
b. break DNA into specific fragments.
c. make copies of specific segments of DNA.
d. insert foreign genes into specific places in DNA.
11. The primers used in PCR are
a. programmed variations in temperature.
b. short sequences of DNA that are complementary to the target DNA.
c. copies of the target DNA.
d. reverse transcriptase.
12. Using current DNA technology, the earliest one can do prenatal genetic diagnosis is
a. fertilized egg.
b. preimplantation embryo.
c. 8 weeks gestation.
d. 16 weeks gestation.
13. Which of the following is an example of use of a genetic marker?
a. ABO blood groups in a paternity case
b. Prenatal diagnosis of PKU
c. Location of a gene on a chromosome by fluorescent in situ hybridization
d. Checking for sickle-cell trait in parents who are concerned about sickle-cell anemia in their child.
14. Cystic fibrosis is polymorphic in Europeans. This means that
a. there are two or more common alleles.
b. there is considerable variation in the cystic fibrosis phenotype.
c. more than one disorder is due to mutations in the CF gene.
d. the condition progresses from mild to severe during the life of the patient.
15. RFLP's often result from
a. inherited defects in DNA repair systems.
b. variations in DNA restriction sites.
c. translocations.
d. errors in transcription.
16. There are many short nucleotide repeats in human DNA of the type -(CA)n-. These are known as
a. duplications.
b. doublets.
c. microsatellites.
d. isoforms.
17. The sixth codon of the beta-globin gene is -GAG- in normal hemoglobin and -GTG- in sickle cell hemoglobin. These two forms can be considered an example of
a. gene conversion.
b. gene transition.
c. monomorphic replacement.
d. single nucleotide polymorphism.
18. A DNA profile (fingerprint) is
a. a list of alleles at functional gene loci.
b. a list of the amount of DNA in each chromosome.
c. a karyotype prepared from DNA probes that "paint" the chromosomes.
d. a list of alleles at polymorphic DNA sites.
19. Confirmation of the identity of the unabomber was provided by a stamp that he had licked. The procedure that would allow such identification was
a. polymerase chain reaction.
b. Southern blot.
c. gene amplification.
d. RFLP analysis.
20. [Skip. Graphic required.]
21. Mitochondrial DNA is especially useful in identifying some distant genetic relationships because
a. it is easy to isolate.
b. it is small in size compared to nuclear DNA.
c. mitochondria do not mutate.
d. mitochondria do not undergo genetic recombination.
22. A tomato at the grocery store is labeled "transgenic." This means that
a. it has been bred to have certain characteristics.
b. it was produced by crossing two different species of tomatoes.
c. one or more genes have been inserted from other species.
d. the seeds are sterile, so don't bother to save them to plant your own.
23. Cancers are described as clonal. This means that
a. all the cells are derived from a single aberrant cell.
b. the cancer arose from a DNA clone.
c. the cancer arose from a cell that had its nucleus replaced by a nucleus from another cell.
d. cancer cells can be cultured in the laboratory starting with a single cell.
24. Which of the following does not cause increased risk of cancer?
a. X-rays
b. Chemical mutagens
c. Visible light
d. Ultraviolet light
25. Approximately how much of the risk of cancer in general is caused by inherited mutations in certain "cancer genes?"
a. 0%
b. 3-5%
c. 40-50%
d. 90-95%
26. In pedigrees of retinoblastoma, it is common to find individuals who transmitted the mutant RB allele but who did not themselves develop retinoblastoma. Which of the following is the correct explanation?
a. The second required mutation did not occur in any retinoblast.
b. That person also had a gene that suppresses retinoblastoma.
c. The retinoblastoma formed but was destroyed by a NK (natural killer) cell.
d. The person may not have been exposed to the tumor virus that is also necessary for retinoblastoma.
27. Many women inherit a mutant form of the BRCA1 (breast cancer-1) gene. Which of the following is true?
a. This increases risk of breast cancer in those women, but most do not develop early onset breast cancer.
b. The likelihood of breast cancer in these women is very high.
c. Women with this mutation account for ca. 50% of all breast cancer.
d. The BRCA1 gene is relatively unimportant as a cause of breast cancer, because most is associated with mutations in BRCA2.
28. Many cancers have mutant forms of genes that function in
a. translation.
b. gene splicing.
c. oxygen transport.
d. DNA repair.
29. Which of the following is an example of a tumor suppressor gene?
a. The retinoblastoma gene.
b. The retroviral reverse transcriptase gene.
c. The DNA polymerase gene.
d. The xeroderma pigmentosum gene.
30. Oncogenes, when overexpressed, contribute to development of cancer because they
a. cause chromosome rearrangements.
b. increase the mutation rate.
c. neutralize destruction of tumor cells by the immune system.
d. promote cell division.
31. A few viruses cause cancer when they
a. increase the mutation rate.
b. combine with the products of tumor suppressor genes to nullify them.
c. carry oncogenes into the cell regulated by the viral promoter.
d. interfere with the spindle in cell division.
32. Fusion genes contribute to cancer. They result from
a. translocation.
b. nondisjunction.
c. nucleotide substitutions.
d. splicing defects.
33. Gene amplification in cancer refers to
a. increasing the amount of gene transcription from a locus.
b. increasing the amount of translation of mRNA from a locus.
c. increasing the number of copies of a gene.
d. increasing the number of copies of the gene target.
34. Carcinogens are agents that
a. enhance the progression of tumors.
b. increase the risk of cancer.
c. decrease the risk of cancer.
d. prevent the activity of oncogenes.
35. Cancer progression is thought to result from
a. changes in the cells that increase the metabolism.
b. accumulation of mutations in genes that regulate growth.
c. increased available energy because of mitochondrial expansion.
d. diminished activity of the immune system.
36. Antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to the presence of
a. lactose.
b. plasma cells.
c. antigens.
d. antibody receptors.
37. The ability to mount a secondary immune response is due primarily to the presence of
a. natural killer cells.
b. T-helper cells
c. plasma cells.
d. memory cells.
38. The failure to generate an immune response against one's self is known as
a. self preservation.
b. immune tolerance.
c. egocentrism.
d. histocompatibility.
39. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets the receptors on
a. macrophages.
b. B lymphocytes.
c. T-helper cells.
d. T-cytotoxic cells.
40. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) refers to conditions in which
a. both T-helper and T-cytoxic cells are nonfunctional.
b. both B-cells and T-helper cells are nonfunctional.
c. both components of cellular immunity are nonfunctional.
d. both humoral immunity and cellular immunity are nonfunctional.
41. Persons with blood type A result from which of the following genotypes?
a. AA
b. AA and AO
c. AA, AB, and AO
d. AA and AB
42. An Rh-negative woman marries an Rh-positive man. Their first child is Rh-negative. Which of their subsequent children are at high risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. All subsequent children
b. The first and subsequent Rh-positive children
c. The second and subsequent Rh-positive children
d. All children after the first Rh-positive child.
43. Reciprocal skin transplants are made between two mice that are isogenic. One would expect that
a. both transplants would be accepted.
b. both transplants would be rejected.
c. transplants would be accepted if the MHC types were properly matched.
d. both transplants would be rejected because isogenic mice have different MHC genotypes.
44. The enormous allelic diversity in the human MHC complex means that
a. sibling pairs would match only in very rare cases.
b. sibling pairs would match 25% of the time.
c. sibling pairs would match 50% of the time.
d. sibling pairs always match because they have the same parents.
45. Graft-versus-host disease occurs when
a. an organ transplant and the recipient do not match, and the transplant is rejected.
b. an organ transplant and the recipient do not match, and the immune system of the recipient is impaired.
c. the transplant has antigens not present in the recipient, leading to rejection of the transplant.
d. a recipient has antigens not present in a bone marrow transplant, and the transplant rejects the recipient.
46. A xenotransplant is a transplant from
a. a donor to a genetically identical recipient.
b. a donor to a genetically nonidentical recipient of the same species.
c. a donor to a recipient of a different species.
d. a laboratory-cultured organ or tissue to an individual.
Questions 47-50 covered material that will not be on this exam.
last revision: 5 November 1999
owned by:
Dr. Eldon Sutton